I recently noticed whilst having a browse through the BRS that there were 2 dogs originally registered under the joint ownership of their breeders (Mrs A & Mrs B - not their real names) and a further dog (also bred by Mrs A & Mrs B) and jointly owned by a Mrs C.  These dogs had been transferred into the ownership of their respective spouses  - Mr A & Mr B for the first 2 dogs and Mr C alone for the dog that had been jointly owned.  (With me so far ......?!)

What reasons would there be for transferring a dog's ownership into your spouse's name when you are still residing in the same place and the dog hasn't moved home?  I do know that Mrs C is judging the breed at a Championship Show later this year ................ would her husband be able to enter a dog she had previously owned under her? 

Does anyone have any experience of this and why it is done?  Thanks :-)

If you're judging at a show, a dog owned by your spouse can be entered at that show if it's under a different judge. If you own the dog, it can't.

I believe Yogi the Crufts BIS Vizsla was officially owned by 2 non-show going people, and had 2 handlers, so as long as neither of those handlers was judging Vizslas that day then he could be entered for the show, even if the other handler was judging a different breed.

In agility, somebody might transfer a dog to their spouse if they want it to stay in the bottom 2 grades (as if you win, all dogs owned by you go up until you reach grade 3).

I take it from this that you can't judge a dog that you actually live with? :-)

The spouses'/new owners haven't been seen in the ring yet so far as I'm aware and the dogs are not involved in agility.  I'm just trying to work out if there is something I'm missing ........

Thanks Kayenine

If your an all rounder judge then at any show your judging at no dog you own can be shown, even though your judging on a completely differentday,  breed, or stakes class, whatever. 

but a dog belonging to your wife, son daughter could be shown.

Thank you Brainless :-)  It would seem that the people in question are perhaps having problems with their judging appointments hampering their showing opportunities.

The KC are keeping an eye on these things happening.....only in this weeks paper, they are reminding people about the transferring of dogs!!!

So does this mean it's a perfectly legitimate option for someone who finds themselves being invited to judge more often but who wants to continue showing their own breeding?

Incidentally can the previous owner (and breeder) Mrs A and Mrs B continue to handle the dogs now owned by their husbands?

The transfer of dogs in the BRS seems to make quite interesting reading sometimes :)

> So does this mean it's a perfectly legitimate option for someone who finds themselves being invited to judge more often but who wants to continue showing their own breeding?
>
> Incidentally can the previous owner (and breeder) Mrs A and Mrs B continue to handle the dogs now owned by their husbands?
>
> The transfer of dogs in the BRS seems to make quite interesting reading sometimes :-)

Yes but as I say the KC have their eye on transfers page 3 DW 30 march..& i am sure I have read it before a month or so ago in KG??

Yes

Not just transfers..I find it all very intiguing in my breed

Barbara, I thought there was a rule that you couldn't judge a dog that you had had your 'hands on' in a few months.  (Now I'm saying it, it doesn't seem very likely, Doh!)  I heard that donkeys years ago and believed it but then I've never had to challenge the ruling.  I think it was something that came up when I was judging and my friend wanted to enter but told me she couldn't as I was very familiar with her dogs?

This isn't about the person judging the dog, it's about the person being able to judge other breed/classes while the dogs they owned are shown in another ring/another day.

I'm managing to confuse myself now (not unheard of :-)) ............ one of the things I was trying to ask was ..... would a someone be allowed to judge a dog they had previously owned (and still lived with) having transferred that dog into their husband's name?  Sorry I think my phrasing originally was quite clumsy.

No, as a judge cannot judge a dog they have owned, boarded, handled (as in shown), or groomed in the preceding 12 months.

Obviously if the dog still lives with them then it's boarding with them.

Thank you again Brainless - an instant reply too ! :-)